[MCQ] If 𝑓(π‘₯)=π‘₯tan^(βˆ’1) π‘₯, then 𝑓^β€² (1) is equal to (A) πœ‹/4βˆ’1/2 - CBSE Class 12 Sample Paper for 2026 Boards

part 2 - Question 8 - CBSE Class 12 Sample Paper for 2026 Boards - Solutions of Sample Papers and Past Year Papers - for Class 12 Boards - Class 12

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Question 8 If 𝑓(π‘₯)=π‘₯tan^(βˆ’1) π‘₯, then 𝑓^β€² (1) is equal to (A) πœ‹/4βˆ’1/2 (B) πœ‹/4+1/2 (C) βˆ’πœ‹/4βˆ’1/2 (D) βˆ’πœ‹/4+1/2Given 𝑓(π‘₯)=π‘₯tan^(βˆ’1) π‘₯ Now, 𝒇^β€² (𝒙)=(π‘₯tan^(βˆ’1) π‘₯)^β€² Using product rule =(π‘₯)^β€² tan^(βˆ’1) π‘₯+π‘₯ (tan^(βˆ’1)⁑π‘₯ )^β€² =1 Γ— γ€–π‘‘π‘Žπ‘›γ€—^(βˆ’1) π‘₯+π‘₯ Γ—1/(1 + π‘₯^2 ) =〖𝒕𝒂𝒏〗^(βˆ’πŸ) 𝒙+𝒙/(𝟏 + 𝒙^𝟐 ) Now, 𝒇^β€² (𝟏)=γ€–π‘‘π‘Žπ‘›γ€—^(βˆ’1) (1) +1/(1 + 1^2 ) =γ€–π‘‘π‘Žπ‘›γ€—^(βˆ’1) (1) +1/(1 + 1) =γ€–π‘‘π‘Žπ‘›γ€—^(βˆ’1) (1) +1/2 =𝝅/πŸ’ +𝟏/𝟐 So, the correct answer is (B)

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