If the angles of βABC are in ratio 1 : 1 : 2, respectively (the largest angle being angle C), then the value ofΒ (sec A)/(cosec B)-tanβ‘A/cotβ‘B Β is :
(a) 0 Β (b) 1/2Β (c) 1 Β (d) β3Β /2
![part 2 - Question 14 - CBSE Class 10 Sample Paper for 2022 Boards - Maths Standard [MCQ] - Solutions of Sample Papers for Class 10 Boards - Class 10](https://cdn.teachoo.com/b334e1fe-02b7-4cb4-84a8-d3b6bbc86022/slide29.jpg)
![part 3 - Question 14 - CBSE Class 10 Sample Paper for 2022 Boards - Maths Standard [MCQ] - Solutions of Sample Papers for Class 10 Boards - Class 10](https://cdn.teachoo.com/30313afd-b903-4557-aacf-205a12f847f4/slide30.jpg)
CBSE Class 10 Sample Paper for 2022 Boards - Maths Standard [MCQ]
CBSE Class 10 Sample Paper for 2022 Boards - Maths Standard [MCQ]
Last updated at Dec. 16, 2024 by Teachoo
Transcript
Question 14 If the angles of βABC are in ratio 1 : 1 : 2, respectively (the largest angle being angle C), then the value of (π ππ π΄)/(πππ ππ π΅)βtanβ‘π΄/cotβ‘π΅ is : (a) 0 (b) 1/2 (c) 1 (d) β3 /2 Since angles are in ratio 1 : 1 : 2 Let angles be β A = x β B = x β C = 2x Now, In Ξ ABC By Angle sum property β A + β B + β C = 180Β° x + x + 2x = 180Β° 4x = 180Β° x = (180Β° )/4 x = 45Β° Thus, β A = x = 45Β°, β B = x = 45Β° , β C = x = 90Β° Now, (π ππ π΄)/(πππ ππ π΅)βtanβ‘π΄/cotβ‘π΅ = (πππ ππΒ° )/(πππππ ππΒ°)βπππβ‘γππΒ°γ/πππβ‘γππΒ° γ = β2/β2β1/1 = 1 β 1 = 0 So, the correct answer is (a)