HOW IS F(X) = 1/X AN ONTO FUNCTION?

BECAUSE THE RANGE OF THE FUNCTION IS ALWAYS LESS THAN OR EQUAL TO 1 BUT THE CODOMAIN IS THE SET OF ALL REAL NUMBERS

Nehasri SrinivasBapu

March 22, 2020, 2:29 p.m.

Answers!

Davneet Singh

March 23, 2020, 4:29 p.m.

Hello

What about when x is a fraction?

Suppose x = 1/2,

then f(x) = 1/(1/2) = 2

So, range can be any real number

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